I have a '79 home in my park that I am renovating.
I am thinking about renting it out at market price.
What if I say to the tenant and put it in the contract: if you rent this home from me, and you always pay on time, then I will give the home to you for free after X years.
Does this violate any regulation? Is it a good idea?
Yes, this is a disguised mortgage and a violation of Dodd-Frank. Look at it another way – what’s the difference between this and an installment sale (which is also a disguised mortgage)?