Have any of you done a deal where you have a scenario of 20 park owned homes and 10 owner owned homes.
On the purchase and sale contract, indicate that the buyer is buying the land only and not the park owned homes.
So as a result, the seller would own the park owned homes and you basically collect lot rent from the seller on the
20 park owned homes that you just conveyed to the seller. So regardless of either they’re vacant or not, you’d be receiving
the lot rent from the seller on all 20 park owned homes. Have you done a such deal and is it legally possible to arrange it