One of the town’s home movers started dating one of our park’s residents who lives in an old 1960s home.
The resident has fallen behind on rent. The boyfriend said they want the park to pay $7,000 to buy the home from them (way over market) or they’re moving the home out. It feels exactly like a shakedown.
We know the resident does not have title to the home.
Is a home mover legally able to move a home with the authorization of the occupant of the home, but not authorization from the legal title holder of the home? I would assume this is a black and white no, but was curious to get other’s opinions.
Just to clarify, I don’t doubt the homeowner could have gone through the legal steps to get title to the home if she had been prepared…but she didn’t, so she isn’t the title holder.
Agreed, but if I tell them that if they try to move a home out without the title we will report them to the licensing board for their actions, is that a valid threat?
Can you ask the Motor Vehicles dept or other authority if they can? I’d start there. Also, can you put a lien on the home because they’re behind on rent? This would prevent them from moving the home (legally).
Another thought; if they are moving to another park, find out where and contact the manager there and let them know the tenant doesn’t pay their rent.
“Oh, that’s quite a situation! Legally, it seems tricky. If the occupant isn’t the title holder, the home mover may lack proper authorization. It’s essential to consult local property laws to determine the specific requirements for moving a home. Considering the circumstances, seeking legal advice could help clarify the rights and obligations involved. Good luck navigating this!”