Okay, so here's my recent drama
One of the town's home movers started dating one of our park's residents who lives in an old 1960s home.
The resident has fallen behind on rent. The boyfriend said they want the park to pay $7,000 to buy the home from them (way over market) or they're moving the home out. It feels exactly like a shakedown.
We know the resident does not have title to the home.
Is a home mover legally able to move a home with the authorization of the occupant of the home, but not authorization from the legal title holder of the home? I would assume this is a black and white no, but was curious to get other's opinions.
Just to clarify, I don't doubt the homeowner could have gone through the legal steps to get title to the home if she had been prepared......but she didn't, so she isn't the title holder.